The post is getting a little difficult to follow. Let me see if I can
summarize and simplify the major debate. The fact that neurohormone levels
correlatively decrease in the face of clinical depression either is somewhat
responsible for the depressive mood itself, or is simply just as much a
consqequence of the real cause of depression as is the depressive mood.
However, when increasing neurohormonal levels by utilizing medications which
block the reuptake of these hormones, a gradual return to the non-depressive
state occurs. Analagous to treating type II diabetes with an oral drug
that stimulates the secretion of insulin. Should one not utilize these
medicinals to help the patients, even if the causal link is not perfectly
established, or may not even exist? These seem to be the basic issues,
without getting into the genetics of the various subtypes of serotonin and
norepinephrine receptors.
