Questions for the experts in electrophysiology....
I have a couple of questions regarding homosynaptic/heterosynaptic
transmission. Typically, postsynaptic currents or potentials (PSC or
PSP) with a constant latency time (time between the stimulus artifact
and the onset of the response) are refered as monosynaptic (better to
say homosynaptic...?), whereas heterosynaptic responses don't have a
constant latency time. What is the reason of that?
On the other hand, I would like to know, why the slope of the EPSP/C is
used to evaluate the homosynaptic component of a heterosynaptic response
(i.e field potentials)?
Thank you very much in advance for the answers.
Segundo J Guzman