I invite you all to read Numbers 12. It's a short chapter. You'll enjoy it.
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"Bob LeChevalier" <lojbab at lojban.org> wrote in message
news:ajr1ouo8thppmno6dvbqi86n20kuhiohgl at 4ax.com...
| "John Knight" <jwknight at polbox.com> wrote:
| >Racial purity was so important to the Israelites that they "put away"
| > their own children, when an Israelite married a non-Israelite. It
| > was so important to Christ that he continually admonished His Twelve
| > Disciples to go only "to the lost sheep of the house of Israel":
|| No they did not usually do so, since Moses did not do so, David did
| not do so Solomon did not do so, and several other names Israelites
| did not do so. Indeed the law in question was honored in the breach
| more than it was respected, which is why God kept punishing the
| Israelites.
|| >With this emphasis on racial purity, it's inevitible that one of the
| > most important ten laws to the Israelites would have been a
| > proscription against intermarriage.
|| But it wasn't.
|| > iow, it makes no sense that the Ten Commandments would have repeated
| > the proscription against "coveting your neighbor's wife" twice, while
| > completely ignoring this most important Israelite law, one that
| > appears to be even more important than several of the other Ten
| > Commandments.
|| It appears to be so ONLY to you.
|| >This Oxford English Dictionary definition for "adultery" isn't
| > convincing. It raises more questions than it answers. When the jews
| > replied to Jesus' charge that they were not descendants of Abraham,
| > they replied: " We be not born of fornication; we have one Father,
| > even God". So it's clear that it's the word "fornication", not
| > "adultery", which means to have sex outside of marriage, otherwise
| > they would have said " We be not born of adultery; we have one
| > Father, even God":
|| You are correct that "fornication" mean sex outside of marriage.
| Adultery means sex by a married person with someone they are not
| married to.
|| >The jews above weren't claiming that they weren't born of harlotry.
| > They were making a direct reference to the state of the marriages of
| > their ancestors. So why would two different Greek words mean exactly
| > the same thing?
|| Lots of reasons. Why do "regal", "royal", and "kingly" all mean
| exactly the same thing?
|| >If they did mean exactly the same thing, then why it wouldn it have
| > been repeated twice in the following:
| >
| > Gal 5:19 Now the works of the flesh are manifest, which are these;
| > adultery, fornication, uncleanness, lasciviousness,
|| I see nothing repeated.
|||| >Here, "adultery" is translated from the Greek word "moicheia":
| > G3430
| > ????????
| > moicheia
| > moy-khi'-ah
| > From G3431; adultery: - adultery.
| >
| >It's the word "porneia" which means "sex outside of marriage", which
means the word "moicheia" must be a proscription against interracial
marriages:
|| No. It matches exactly the distinction between fornication and
| adultery in English.
|| lojbab