"John Knight" <jwknight at polbox.com> wrote:
>Racial purity was so important to the Israelites that they "put away"
> their own children, when an Israelite married a non-Israelite. It
> was so important to Christ that he continually admonished His Twelve
> Disciples to go only "to the lost sheep of the house of Israel":
No they did not usually do so, since Moses did not do so, David did
not do so Solomon did not do so, and several other names Israelites
did not do so. Indeed the law in question was honored in the breach
more than it was respected, which is why God kept punishing the
Israelites.
>With this emphasis on racial purity, it's inevitible that one of the
> most important ten laws to the Israelites would have been a
> proscription against intermarriage.
But it wasn't.
> iow, it makes no sense that the Ten Commandments would have repeated
> the proscription against "coveting your neighbor's wife" twice, while
> completely ignoring this most important Israelite law, one that
> appears to be even more important than several of the other Ten
> Commandments.
It appears to be so ONLY to you.
>This Oxford English Dictionary definition for "adultery" isn't
> convincing. It raises more questions than it answers. When the jews
> replied to Jesus' charge that they were not descendants of Abraham,
> they replied: " We be not born of fornication; we have one Father,
> even God". So it's clear that it's the word "fornication", not
> "adultery", which means to have sex outside of marriage, otherwise
> they would have said " We be not born of adultery; we have one
> Father, even God":
You are correct that "fornication" mean sex outside of marriage.
Adultery means sex by a married person with someone they are not
married to.
>The jews above weren't claiming that they weren't born of harlotry.
> They were making a direct reference to the state of the marriages of
> their ancestors. So why would two different Greek words mean exactly
> the same thing?
Lots of reasons. Why do "regal", "royal", and "kingly" all mean
exactly the same thing?
>If they did mean exactly the same thing, then why it wouldn it have
> been repeated twice in the following:
>> Gal 5:19 Now the works of the flesh are manifest, which are these;
> adultery, fornication, uncleanness, lasciviousness,
I see nothing repeated.
>Here, "adultery" is translated from the Greek word "moicheia":
> G3430
> ????????
> moicheia
> moy-khi'-ah
> From G3431; adultery: - adultery.
>>It's the word "porneia" which means "sex outside of marriage", which means the word "moicheia" must be a proscription against interracial marriages:
No. It matches exactly the distinction between fornication and
adultery in English.
lojbab