"John Knight" <jwknight at polbox.com> wrote:
>Many English dictionaries now defines "bastard" as something different than
>when the KJV translators translated Hebrew word "mamzer".
Nope.
>The original Hebrew word "mamzer" still means "mongrel" in Englis
No it doesn't.
>The following Holy Scripture is meaningless as translated by the KJV
>translators:
Meaning only that YOU don't understand it, because without changing
it, you cannot make it fit YOUR lies, which come from the Prince of
Lies, your master.
>Otherwise, it makes no sense.
You have no sense.
>> >A BASTARD IS THE OFFSPRING OF AN INTERRACIAL MARRIAGE
>>>> The English language does not define Hebrew words.
>>We're using English dictionaries to determine the original meaning of the
>English word "bastard".
Something you are no more capable at than you are at any other bit of
research, nincompoop.
>The actual Hebrew word "mamzer" didn't change, at all. It still means
>"mongrel".
No.
>> Not a correct quote of Strongs:
>>>> > Strong's Number: 04464
>> >Original Word Word Origin
>> >rzmm from an unused root meaning to alienate
>> >Transliterated Word TDNT Entry
>> >Mamzer TWOT - 1174a
>> >Phonetic Spelling Parts of Speech
>> >mam-zare' Noun Masculine
>> >
>> > Definition
>> >1. bastard, child of incest, illegitimate child
>> > a. bastard
>> > b. mixed population (fig.)
>> > c. born of a Jewish father and a heathen mother or visa versa
>>>> Notice that the primary meaning is the traditional meaning of
>> "bastard" in our culture. The extension to mixed populations is
>> marked as FIGURATIVE "(fig.)".
>>Which means only that the English definition of "bastard" changed
No, because if it had changed, then they would not have needed to mark
the other meaning as "figurative".
>William the Conqueror's parents were not married, and before 1066 he
> was known as 'William the Bastard'. After 1066, the Anglo Saxons he
> conquered would probably still have called him 'William the Bastard'
> for quite different reasons. One theory of the etymology of this
> insult says that it comes from the French word 'bast' as in 'fils de
> bast' meaning son of the packsaddle, which compares with the British
> English usage of someone being 'born the wrong side of the blanket'
> or being 'the son of a gun' (as in a 'shotgun wedding'). Another
> connects it with the Old Frisian for marriage, and Old English for
> bind. Brits will say that something like the weather, or a sports
> result is 'a complete bastard' as well as calling someone, usually
> male, a bastard if they have been particularly unpleasant.
500 years before the KJV, "bastard" meant what it now means.
Shakespeare, who wrote within a few years of the KJV had the character
"Phillip the Bastard" in his play King John. Phillip was the bastard
son of Richard the Lion Hearted in the modern sense of the word
"bastard".
Within 10 years of the KJV, "bastard" meant what it now means.
NOW, the word "bastard" means what it now means, and all your fairy
tales won't change it. They are LIES, which you spread on behalf of
your master the Prince of Lies.
lojbab