"John Knight" <jwknight at polbox.com> wrote:
>This Holy Scripture makes absolutely NO sense if it were to refer to one
>individual who was the product of adultery [as redefined by jews], or
>"unmarried parents", would it.
Maybe it does make sense, but YOU are incapable of understanding it.
In any event, the Bible does NOT give YOU the authority the change its
words to suit your fairy tales. That is blasphemy, and shows you to
be the servant of the Prince of Lies.
>The original Hebrew word which KJV still translates as "bastard" was
>"mamzer", which is literally "mongrel".
No. It is literally "bastard", and FIGURATIVELY "mongrel". The
sources that you cited confirmed this.
>The point is that the definition of "bastard" changed.
No. It hasn't.
lojbab