"John Knight" <johnknight at usa.com> wrote:
>If you had paid attention to the url at [garbage URL deleted]
>then you would already know that it was a Swedish woman, Gösta
>Mittag-Leffler, a professor of mathematics at Stockholm University College,
>who asked Pierre to consider asking the Nobel committee to award half of his
>half to his wife, a lab assistant. Gösta didn't make this request out of
>any serious concern for science, integrity, honor, but only because Marie
>was his wife.
The Nobel foundation says that no one knows what Mittag-Leffler wrote to
Pierre Curie. All we have is his answer. So your statements as to her
motivation are pure speculation.
Meanwhile, I am happy that you have acknowledged that in the pre-affirmative
action era, there was a woman who was a professor of mathematics, and who was
influential enough that something she might say would be relevant to both
Pierre Curie and to the Nobel Committee.
>No other reason was given. The committee had never even put her in the
>running.
The nomination describing the work had not mentioned her. Yet obviously her
role in the work was sufficiently well known that someone in another country
knew enough to ask.
>And Pierre, being the whimp that he was, responded that for
>"artistic" reasons, he would make such a request.
That you think this is the only reason that Pierre might do so, says more
about you, nincompoop, then it does about Pierre Curie.
> And then when Prime Minister of France Georges
>Bidault removed her son without explanation from his position as high
>commissioner, and a few months later Irene was also deprived of her position
>as commissioner in the Commissariat a 1'Energie Atomique, the jews cried
>"anti-semitism".
Her son? And this has nothing to do with Marie Curie's award of TWO Nobel
prizes, one of which was unshared. You still have not acknowledged that
second Nobel prize, which wipes out your theory.
lojbab
