On 28 Oct 1999 22:02:18 GMT, perle at cs.tu-berlin.de (Frank Wilde)
wrote:
>>> Yes. The point of the experiment was to demonstrate that there was no other
>>> channel through which the information could have travelled,
>> so,could i interpret this experiment to have "communicated" polarization
>> at a speed grater than light?
>>My interpretation is that the common source of the photons did equip both
>with respective states (or a superposition of such) which can be thought of
>as saying "if measured this way, behave that way, etc."
Yes, this explanation has been tried by Einstein himself, as I
understand your position.
You want to check out Bell's Inequality, and the experiments around
it. Here's a URL to John Baez' FAQ on the issue.
http://math.ucr.edu/home/baez/physics/bells_inequality.html
>(I'd be grateful though for pointers to actual experimental data showing
> I happened to miss the point. Browsing www.cern.ch didn't lead to anything
> substantial so far. What's the name of that experiment? (Cc: poster as well,
> please, as I don't trust our expire very much.))
The original experiment is, I believe, A. Aspect, Dalibard, Roger:
"Experimental test of Bell's inequalities using time- varying
analyzers" Physical Review Letters 49 #25, 1804 (20 Dec 1982).
The FAQ answer above points out that subtle issues in this and
subsequent experiments are still under debate.
--
cheers, Fred
