I have a question that I was unable to find answered anywhere. I did a
thorough search of Deja as well as the Web and I still couldn't find any
comments on this.
In any given person with normal hearing, do the left and right ears usually
have the same exact (or very close) frequency response? That is, would one
expect that the right ear and the left ear would be about equally sensitive
to any given frequency? Or, are there typically variations between the left
and right ear?
If one can expect differences, is there any statistics that indicate which
ear is typically more or less sensitive? Remember, I am talking about
someone who has normal hearing i.e. no measured hearing loss.
Thanks in advance for any help. Remember to pull out the _nospam from my
email address if you reply!